Test Banking - Chapter 29 Human Development and Aging

                 Chapter 29 Human Development and Aging

 

True / False Questions

1. Sperm must travel to the distal end of the uterine tube to encounter the egg before it dies. True   False

2. The slow block refers to the mechanism that prevents fertilization of another egg when one isalready

pregnant. True   False

3. The fertilization membrane is the endometrial tissue that receives the conceptus.

True   False

4. Cleavage results in daughter cells containing half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell. True   False

5. During implantation, the embryoblast undergoes gastrulation.

True   False

6. The embryonic stage extends from 16 days through the end of week 8. True   False

7. The chorion forms the fetal part of the placenta.

True   False

8. The placenta begins to form after week 8. True   False

9. Trophoblastic nutrition refers to the nutrition of the conceptus before it implants.

True   False

10. Neonatal immunity depends on IgG and IgA acquired through the placenta and colostrum, respectively. True   False

11. To some extent, the heat loss of the neonate is compensated for by the thermal insulation provided by brown fat.

True   False

12. Inadequate liver function is the most common reason that premature infants suffer from multiple dysfunctions.

True   False

13. Teratogens usually do not cause congenital anomalies. True   False

14. Senescence begins at different ages and progresses at different rates in different organ systems. True   False

15. Life expectancy has steadily increased in the last century, whereas life span has not.

True   False

16. A person in his or her 90's can increase muscle strength by two or three times with 40 minutes of isometric exercise per week.

True   False

Multiple Choice Questions

17. Which of the folllowing lists the stages or structures of prenatal development in the correct order?

A. Cleavage, zygote, morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus

B. Zygote, morula, blastocyst, cleavage, embryo, fetus

C. Zygote, cleavage, morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus

D. Zygote, embryo, morula, blastocyst, cleavage, fetus

E. Embryo, zygote, blastocyst, cleavage, morula, fetus

18. The process that makes it possible for sperm to penetrate the egg is called   .

A. sperm migration

B. capacitation

C. the cortical reaction

D. morulation

E. cleavage

19. In the slow block to polyspermy, sperm penetration releases an inflow of     , which in turn stimulates the     .

A. Cl-; corona radiata

B. K+; zona pellucida

C. Na+; fertilization membrane

D. Ca2+; fertilization membrane

E. Ca2+; cortical reaction

20. In the fast block to polyspermy, binding of sperm opens up  channels, which depolarizes the egg membrane and       .

A. Na+; prevents the entrance of any more sperm

B. Na+; prevents the entrance of more Na+

C. Na+; prevents the entrance of Ca2+

D. Ca2+; prevents the entrance of any more sperm

E. Ca2+; prevents the entrance of more Na+

21. Regarding fertilization, which of the following events happens first?

A. Formation of a fertilization membrane

B. The fast block to polyspermy

C. The slow block to polyspermy

D. The cortical reaction

E. The acrosomal reaction

22. The optimal "window of opportunity" to conceive a child is   .

A. a few days before ovulation to less than a day after

B. less than a day before ovulation to less than a day after

C. a few days before ovulation to a few days after

D. a few days before ovulation

E. a few days after ovulation

23. The spheroidal stage of early prenatal development with about 16 to 64 cells is called a(n)     .

A. zygote

B. embryo

C. blastomere

D. morula

E. blastocyst

24. Twins produced when a single egg is fertilized are called        twins. Twins produced from two eggs ovulated at the same time are called  twins.

A. monozygotic; identical

B. dizygotic; nonidentical

C. monozygotic; dizygotic

D. dizygotic; monozygotic

E. nonidentical; identical

25. In the blastocyst, the trophoblast will become            , whereas the embryoblast will become

 A. part of the placenta; the yolk sac

B. part of the placenta; the embryo

C. the embryo; part of the placenta

D. the embryo; the yolk sac

E. the yolk sac; the embryo

26. Primary germ layers are formed during          

A. implantation

B. cleavage

C. conception

D. organogenesis

E. gastrulation

27. Mesenchyme gives rise to    .

A. nervous tissue

B. muscle, bone, and blood

C. digestive organs and endocrine glands

D. reproductive and urinary systems

E. the integumentary system and exocrine glands

28. During implantation, the trophoblast divides into a deep layer called the        , which is composed of individual cells.

A. chorion

B. amnion

C. syncytiotrophoblast

D. cytotrophoblast

E. embryoblast

29. During implantation, the trophoblast divides into a superficial layer called the              , which is composed of a multinucleate mass of cytoplasm.

A. chorion

B. embryoblast

C. amnion

D. syncytiotrophoblast

E. cytotrophoblast

30. By the time the conceptus arrives in the uterus, it consists of at least               or more cells.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

E. 32

31. Out of the 300 million ejaculated sperm, only about reach the vicinity of the egg.

A. 20 to 30 B. 200 to 300

C. 2000 to 3000

D. 20,000 to 30,000

E. half

32. Prior to ejaculation, in the plasma membrane of the sperm prevents premature release of

 .A. cholesterol; acrosomal enzymes

B. protein; acrosomal enzymes

C. carbohydrates; prostaglandins

D. hyaluronic acid; prostaglandins

E. acrosin and hyaluronidase; acrosomal enzymes

33. Which of the following is not a derivative of ectoderm?

A. Salivary glands

B. The nervous system

C. The epidermis

D. Cutaneous glands

E. The dermis

34. The first body cavity is called the        .

A. coelom

B. amniotic cavity

C. yolk sac

D. somite

E. chorion

35. By the end of 8 weeks, the individual is considered a fetus because  .

A. all the primary germ layers are formed

B. the amniotic cavity has formed

C. all of the organ systems are present

D. the neural tube and yolk sac have formed

E. the mesoderm has formed

36. The completely encloses the embryo and provides it with a stable environment.

A. yolk sac

B. amnion

C. chorion

D. chorionic villus

E. allantois

37. The encloses all the rest of the membranes and the embryo.

A. chorion

B. allantois

C. yolk sac

D. amnion

E. zona pellucida

38. The is an embryonic membrane that serves as the origin of the first blood and germ cells.

A. yolk sac

B. allantois

C. chorion

D. amnion

E. placenta

39. As it implants, the conceptus is nourished by means of           .

A. trophoblastic nutrition

B. uterine milk

C. nutrient diffusion from the endometrium

D. placenta

E. umbilical nutrition

40. The begins to develop about 11 days after conception, and is the sole source of fetal nutrition from the end of week 12 until birth.

A. yolk sac

B. placenta

C. amnion

D. trophoblast

E. blastocyst

41. In fetal circulation, the            bypasses the liver and the           bypasses the lungs.

A. ligamentum venosum; ligamentum arteriosum

B. foramen ovale; ductus venosus

C. ductus arteriosus; ductus venosus

D. ductus venosus; ductus arteriosus

E. ligamentum arteriosum; foramen ovale

42. In fetal circulation, blood bypasses the lungs by flowing through the                .

A. umbilical vein and umbilical arteries

B. fossa ovalis and umbilical arteries and vein

C. foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus

D. ductus venosus and ductus arteriosus

E. ligamentum venosum and ligamentum arteriosum

43. Which of the following major events of prenatal development happens first?

A. The eyes are fully open

B. The body is covered with lanugo

C. Bone calcification begins

D. The central nervous system begins to form

E. Meconium accumulates in the intestines

 

 

44. Oxygenated blood reaches the fetus through the     .

A. umbilical vein

B. umbilical arteries

C. maternal vein

D. maternal arteries

E. placental sinus

45. Which of the following is not considered an embryonic membrane?

A. Yolk sac

B. Placenta

C. Allantois

D. Chorion

E. Amnion

46.          pass(es) from the maternal blood to the fetal blood. Fetal           pass(es) the other way.

A. Carbon dioxide and oxygen; wastes

B. Carbon dioxide; nutrients

C. Wastes; nutrients and oxygen

D. Wastes and nutrients; oxygen and carbon dioxide

E. Oxygen and nutrients; wastes

47. The digital rays of a fetus give rise to                .

A. arms and legs

B. ribs and intercostal muscles

C. fingers and toes

D. extensor digitorum muscles

E. radial muscles of the iris

48. The first 6 weeks of postpartum life constitute the   period.

A. transitional

B. premature

C. neonatal

D. senescence

E. infancy

49. The fossa ovalis is a remnant of the  of the fetus.

A. ductus arteriosus

B. ductus venosus

C. umbilical artery

D. umbilical vein

E. foramen ovale

50. During birth, an infant is normally stimulated to breathe by   .

A. CO2 accumulating in the baby's blood

B. an increased O2 level in the baby's new environment

C. prostaglandins

D. surfactant

E. being spanked by the doctor

51. Which of the following organ systems shows the greatest anatomical change in the transitional period after birth?

A. Muscular system

B. Integumentary system

C. Skeletal system

D. Circulatory system

E. Nvous system

52. Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) is caused by        .

A. production of very thick respiratory mucus

B. deficiency of pulmonary surfactant

C. underdeveloped respiratory epithelium

D. pulmonary edema

E. overinflated alveoli

53. Which of the following organ systems faces the greatest physiological challenge in the transitional period after birth?

A. Muscular system

B. Integumentary system

C. Respiratory system

D. Circulatory system

E. Nervous system

 

 

 

 

54. A teratogen is most likely to cause    .

A. a deformity of the limbs

B. aneuploidy

C. trisomy

D. nondisjunction

E. a mutation

55. Which of the following does not have potentially teratogenic effects?

A. Smoking

B. Alcohol

C. Infectious diseases

D. Sunlight

E. X-rays

56. Down syndrome (trisomy-21) results from    .

A. a mutagen

B. nondisjunction

C. a teratogen

D. a sex-linked mutation

E. an autosomal recessive allele

57. The most likely outcome of nondisjunction is the production of a gamete receiving   .

A. no chromosomes

B. 46 chromosomes

C. 44 chromosomes

D. 23 chromosomes

E. 22 chromosomes

58. Only autosomal trisomies involving chromosomes 13, 18, and 21 are survivable. Why would this be?

A. These are relatively short chromosomes.

B. These are relatively long chromosomes.

C. These are relatively gene-poor chromosomes.

D. These are redundant chromosomes.

E. These chromosomes have no genes.

59. Urine retention is a greater problem for elderly men than for elderly women because men  .

A. can develop benign prostatic hyperplasia

B. have larger bladders

C. have weaker urinary sphincters

D. have narrower ureters

E. have fewer glomeruli

60. Which of the following is not a reason muscular weakness tends to develop in old age?

A. Aged muscle has less glycogen, myoglobin, and creatine phosphate.

B. There are fewer motor neurons in the spinal cord.

C. Aged muscle fibers have fewer myofibrils.

D. There are fewer and smaller mitochondria in aged muscle.

E. The myocytes of aged muscle no longer synthesize myosin.

61. Older people may require lower drug doses than younger people because   .

A. their organs are more sensitive to drugs

B. they have lower rates of renal clearance

C. they do not absorb as much drug from the small intestine

D. there is less tissue mass to treat

E. a lifetime of mutations results in unpredictable drug reactions

62. Which of the following statements is true regarding telomeres?

A. Telomeres are cytoplasmic enzymes involved in senescence.

B. Telomeres are antioxidants that slow the progress of senescence.

C. Telomeres are DNA segments at each end of a chromosome.

D. Telomeres are proteins that cap the ends of the chromosomes.

E. Telomeres are motor molecules that guide embryonic cells to the right destinations.

63. The observation that there is a limit to how many times a cell can divide is the basis for the   theory of senescence.

A. autoimmune

B. free

radical

C. cross-linking

D. replicative

E. abortive

64. Which of the following systems shows the least overall senescence?

A. Muscular system

B. Endocrine system

C. Integumentary system

D. Reproductive system

E. Urinary system

65. Senescence of the immune system makes older people more susceptible to cancer and infectious disease because of a decline in             .

A. alpha and beta globulins

B. red blood cells and platelets

C. complement proteins

D. prothrombin and fibrinogen

E. antigen-presenting cells and helper T cells

66. Which of the following is not a known benefit of regular exercise?

A. Maintained joint mobility

B. Maintained strength

C. Decreased incidence of hypertension

D. Maintained endurance

E. Prolonged life expectancy

67. Which of the following is not a known cause of congenital anomalies?

A. Infectious disease in the mother during pregnancy

B. A genetic disorder

C. Exposure to teratogens during pregnancy

D. Smoking during lactation

E. Smoking during pregnancy

True / False Questions

68. The fetus deposits fat in its subcutaneous tissue in the 7th month of gestation. True   False