NSG5003 MIDTERM EXAM Latest 2019 April

NSG5003 Advanced Pathophysiology

MIDTERM EXAM

1. Stress-age syndrome directly results in the depressed function of which system?

Respiratory

Endocrine

Digestive

Immune

Question 2. Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and is thought to be associated with connective tissue disease?

Mitral valve prolapse

Tricuspid stenosis

Tricuspid valve prolapse

Aortic insufficiency

Question 3. Sitting up in a forward-leaning position generally relieves which breathing disorder?

Hyperpnea

Orthopnea

Apnea

Dyspnea on exertion

Question 4. Which intracardiac pressure is generated by atrial contraction?

A wave

C wave

Y descent

X descent

Question 5. Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?

CD4 helper T 1 (Th1) lymphocytes

CD4 helper T 2 (Th2) lymphocytes

CD8 cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes

Memory T lymphocytes

Question 6. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction (MI) would interrupt blood supply to which structures?

Left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum

Left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle

Upper-right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex

Posterior interventricular sulcus and the smaller branches of both ventricles

Question 7. In regulating vascular mediators released from mast cells, the role of eosinophils is to release

Arylsulfatase B, which stimulates the formation of B lymphocytes

Histaminase, which limits the effects of histamine during acute inflammation

Lysosomal enzymes, which activate mast cell degranulation during acute inflammation

Immunoglobulin E (IgE), which defends the body against parasites

Question 8. Which statement is believed to be true concerning helper T 2 (Th2) cells?

Th2 cells are induced by antigens derived from allergens.

They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells.

Th2 cells produce IL-2, tumor necrosis factor–beta (TNF-?), and Interferon-gamma (IFN-?).

Th2 cells assist in the development of cell-mediated immunity.

Question 9. Which statement is true regarding ventilation?

Hypoventilation causes hypocapnia.

Hyperventilation causes hypercapnia.

Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia.

Hyperventilation results in an increased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2).

Question 10. Which cell has a role in developing cell-mediated immunity?

Helper T 1 (Th1)

CD4

CD8

Helper T 2 (Th2)

Question 11. Neurotransmitters affect the postsynaptic membrane by binding to:

Lipids

Ribosomes

Amphipathic lipids

Receptors

Question 12. Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process?

Inflammation

Occlusion

Distention

Sclerosis

Question 13. Which criterion is used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in an eight-year-old child?

Parental history of asthma

Serum testing that confirms increased immunoglobulin E (IgE) and eosinophil levels

Reduced expiratory flow rates confirmed by spirometry testing

Improvement on a trial of asthma medication

Question 14. Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells?

They lie on their left sides.

They perform the Valsalva maneuver.

They squat.

They hyperventilate.

Question 15. Which mode of chemical signaling uses blood to transport communication to cells some distance away

Paracrine

Autocrine

Neurotransmitter

Hormonal

Question 16. When a mucous gland cell creates a new substance from previously absorbed material, this process is known as which specialized cellular function?

Excretion

Metabolic absorption

Reproduction

Secretion

Question 17. Which statement is true regarding hypoxemia?

Hypoxemia results in the increased oxygenation of arterial blood.

Respiratory alterations cause hypoxemia.

Hypoxemia results in the decreased oxygenation of tissue cells.

Various system changes cause hypoxemia.

Question 18. Which enzyme is secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney when the circulating blood volume is reduced?

Angiotensin I

Angiotensin II

Aldosterone

Renin

Question 19. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

Potassium moves out of the cell, and potassium and sodium are inversely related.

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane.

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 20. Passive transport is best described by which of the following statements?

It is driven by osmosis, hydrostatic pressure, and diffusion.

It involves receptors that can bind with substances being transported.

It refers to being capable of transporting macromolecules.

It requires energy generated by the cell.

Question 21. What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action potential?

Potassium gates open and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.

Sodium gates open and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.

Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.

Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.

Question 22. In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes are deposited in tissues are a result of:

Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells

Natural killer (NK) cells

Complement activation

Degranulation of mast cells

Question 23. Blood transfusion reactions are an example of:

Autoimmunity

Alloimmunity

Homoimmunity

Hypersensitivity

Question 24. Which receptors are located in the smooth muscles of airways?

Central chemoreceptors

Stretch receptors

Peripheral chemoreceptors

J-receptors

Question 25. Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?

The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport.

The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system.

The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake.

The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately six months of age.

Question 26. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the antigen

Size

Foreignness

Complexity

Quantity

Question 27. The abnormal proliferation of cells in response to excessive hormonal stimulation is called:

Dysplasia

Pathologic dysplasia

Hyperplasia

Pathologic hyperplasia

Question 28. Which statement about exotoxins is true?

Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.

Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria.

Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades.

Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.

Question 29. What is the first stage in the infectious process?

Invasion

Colonization

Spread

Multiplication

Question 30. Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance?

Hypokalemia

Hyperkalemia

Hypocalcemia

Hypercalcemia

Question 31. Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades, such as caspase-mediated apoptosis and complement cascades, may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases?

Cardiac and vascular disorders

Autoimmune and malignant disorders

Gastrointestinal and renal disorders

Endocrine and gastrointestinal disorders

Question 32. Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

Strong response from IgM

Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)

Question 33. The fluid mosaic model explains:

How a cell membrane functions

Why our bodies appear to be solid

How tissue is differentiated

How fluid moves between the intracellular and extracellular compartments

Question 34. During which phase of the cell cycle is deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesized?

G1

S

G2

M

Question 35. A person with type O blood is considered to be a universal blood donor because type O blood contains

No antigens

No antibodies

Both A and B antigens

Both A and B antibodies

Question 36. Which option shows the correct sequence of events after atelectasis develops in respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance, atelectasis, and hypoperfusion

Hypoxic vasoconstriction and right-to-left shunt hypoperfusion

Respiratory acidosis, hypoxemia, and hypercapnia

Right-to-left shunt, hypoxic vasoconstriction, and hypoperfusion

Question 37. Most cardiovascular developments occur between which weeks of gestation?

Fourth and seventh weeks

Eighth and tenth weeks

Twelfth and fourteenth weeks

Fifteenth and seventeenth weeks

Question 38. Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages?

Complement cascade

Coagulation system

Kinin system

Immune system

Question 39. Carbon monoxide causes tissue damage by:

Competing with carbon dioxide so that it cannot be excreted

Binding to hemoglobin so that it cannot carry oxygen

Destroying the chemical bonds of hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen

Removing iron from hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen

Question 40. What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) in cell metastasis?

To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells

To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells

To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis

To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels